Keynes's Malthusianism indicates that he had a defective understanding of the division of labor and the law of returns. Beyond that, his population policies reveal the totalitarianism inherent in the Keynesian vision.
If Keynes was such a model champion of the free society, how can we account for his peculiar comments, in 1933, endorsing, though with reservations, the social "experiments" that were going on at the time in Italy, Germany, and Russia?
Given the repeated failures of Keynesian economic policy, both in America and around the world, you would think the theory would be discredited. Apparently financial journalists aren’t very familiar with real-world evidence.