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Austrian Countries?

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Austrian Countries?

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Felipe Posted: Tue, Nov 10 2009 3:47 PM

Can you give me a list of countries that have successfully applied the theories of the Austrian School?

 

Would it be fair to name the US (1776-1792) an Austrian Country?

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DanielMuff replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 4:58 PM

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

To paraphrase Marc Faber: We're all doomed, but that doesn't mean that we can't make money in the process.
Rabbi Lapin: "Let's make bricks!"
Stephan Kinsella: "Say you and I both want to make a German chocolate cake."

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Conza88 replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 5:10 PM

Daniel:

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

And as such International Relations theory fails remarkably.

Ron Paul is for self-government when compared to the Constitution. He's an anarcho-capitalist. Proof.
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DanielMuff replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 5:17 PM

Also, Austrian Economics doesn't advocate anything. It simply attempts to explain economics. I suppose that what you are asking is, for example, has there been a country that hasn't had a central bank that inflated? In that case, there were two US central bank in the 1800s.

To paraphrase Marc Faber: We're all doomed, but that doesn't mean that we can't make money in the process.
Rabbi Lapin: "Let's make bricks!"
Stephan Kinsella: "Say you and I both want to make a German chocolate cake."

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krazy kaju replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 9:21 PM

The only Austrian country is Austria, and they do not practice free market economics. There has never been a single example of a truly pure free market, although there are some close examples (e.g. anarchist Ireland and Iceland).

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Sieben replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 9:30 PM

Daniel:
States do not act; only humans do.
In this sense, every country applies Austrian theory: Human beings act rationally ;)

But sometimes they use guns :(

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No2statism replied on Tue, Nov 10 2009 10:37 PM

Under the Articles of Confederation (c. 1781-1789) there was no central bank, and taxes were very low as a country.  However, some states could have high taxes if they choosed to.  And it was up to each state whether its tender had to be legal.

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Peter Wild replied on Wed, Nov 11 2009 6:43 AM

The Austrian School was quite present in German and Austrian economics before WWII. The best example is by shure the person Hjalmar Schacht - President of the German Reichsbank between 1933 and 1939 - and Minister of Economics of the IIIrd Reich between 1934 to 1937.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hjalmar_Schacht

 

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SkepticalMetal replied on Fri, Sep 21 2012 7:31 PM

But didn't 1776-1792 America have the Hamiltonian policy?

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Aristophanes replied on Fri, Sep 21 2012 7:41 PM

Daniel:

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

And as such International Relations theory fails remarkably.

Ummm.  Has anyone here ever read Kenneth Waltz?  States are just like corporations.  They are groups of people.  Those groups and similar interests and act accordingly (as if together) in order to accomplish things that may only benefit them the slightest in the long term.

 I realize the "only humans act" was a clever joke, but the response about international relations is kind of dumb.

Anyway, cooperative-individual action occurs at all levels.  I would argue, even at the level of the nation state (and certain levels beyond and through that), we call the bureaucracies.  Waltz built the realist model of international relations on the concept that nation state actors are in an inherently anarchic world order.  There is no international set of rules, there are only agreements and conflict among the nation state actors (groups of cooperating individuals known as bureaucracies).  Each state is free to do as it pleases so long as the other states allow it to do so.

This doesn't seem like it fails.

 

Austrian theory: Human beings act rationally ;)

Isn't Austrian "rationality" axiomatic or tautologic?  In that, "all action is rational" based on....what exactly?

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Aristippus replied on Sat, Sep 22 2012 2:20 AM

Misesian rationality refers to the use of means towards ends.

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Aristophanes replied on Sat, Sep 22 2012 3:25 AM

Misesian rationality refers to the use of means towards ends.

There isn't anything deeper to 'means'?  Do the people know that their actions will result in the desired end, so far as they have knowledge to comprehend the exact circumstances?  What makes means towards ends rational?  Does means equate to cause?

Can this be framed with more modern philosophy of action terminology?

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