The Mises Community
An online community for fans of Austrian economics and libertarianism, featuring forums, user blogs, and more.

Why are cities and towns incorporated?

rated by 0 users
This post has 4 Replies | 1 Follower

Not Ranked
Posts 6
Points 130
jamesoreilly Posted: Thu, Dec 6 2007 11:40 AM

 

This has always puzzeled me. What is the real purpose of this?
  • | Post Points: 50
Top 25 Contributor
Posts 4,532
Points 84,465
Stranger replied on Thu, Dec 6 2007 12:00 PM

 Historically cities were chartered. They were a form of private property, owned by associations of merchants or somesuch. (The City of London is still administered by businesses; it was never expropriated in its history.)

If your question is why someone would do that at all, it is in order to produce shared goods like streets or city walls.

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 50 Contributor
Posts 1,879
Points 29,720
Bostwick replied on Thu, Dec 6 2007 12:22 PM

jamesoreilly:

 

This has always puzzeled me. What is the real purpose of this?

 

 

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_charter

Peace

  • | Post Points: 5
Not Ranked
Posts 30
Points 395

In the words of Marc Stevens, "Cities and States don't exist."

"Government is just a group of men and women doing business at the barrel of a gun." — Marc Stevens, No State Project

  • | Post Points: 5
Top 50 Contributor
Posts 2,491
Points 43,390
scineram replied on Tue, Feb 24 2009 5:25 PM

Stranger:
They were a form of private property, owned by associations of merchants or somesuch. (The City of London is still administered by businesses; it was never expropriated in its history.)

 In feudalibertarian bizarro world they are.

Black Market:

In the words of Marc Stevens, "Cities and States don't exist."

He is obviously wrong.

  • | Post Points: 5
Page 1 of 1 (5 items) | RSS