I was reading through Frederic Bastiat’s “That Which is Seen, and That Which is Not Seen” essay, where he outlines his Broken Window Theory. Bastiat states that when a shopkeeper’s careless son breaks a window, onlookers console him saying, “Everybody has to make a living, and what would become of glass-makers if glass windows were never broken?” Bastiat attempts to refute this logic by saying that ‘what is seen’ is the immediate ₣6 profit made by the glass-maker, but ‘what is not seen’ is the fact that the shopkeeper (had his window not been broken) would have spent that ₣6 on a new pair of shoes AND still had the unbroken window. Because of the broken window, he now has to spend the ₣6 on fixing his window, and therefore he comes out of it all with the mere neutral satisfaction that he had before–that of having an unbroken window. So Bastiat states that in the situation of the broken window, the shopkeeper enjoys one less good than in the situation of the unbroken window. Therefore, Bastiat concludes, destruction gives no economic benefit to society.
However, I noticed Bastiat just went on after that without examining what happened to the ₣6 that went to the glass maker. Suppose the glass maker turned around and used that ₣6 to buy a pair of shoes.
Bastiat claims that in the broken window situation, the shoemaker goes without profit, but really the ₣6 doesn’t just disappear into a black hole when the glass-maker gets ahold of it. The glass-maker could just as easily use that ₣6 to buy a pair of shoes. In either the broken window or the unbroken window scenario, can’t the shoe-maker still sell a pair of shoes, just to a different person in each scenario?
I’m having trouble understanding Bastiat’s logic here. Can anyone help me out?