JonBostwick:For credit to exist prior savings must be owned by the creditor, not the debtor.
False. Suppose that I, a penniless vagabond, offer to shine a millionaire's boots for 20c, and he accepts my offer, and I shine them. I then expect him to pay me the 20c he owes me. I am the penniless creditor, he is the wealthy debtor. Credit has nothing to do with prior savings. It is simply faith in someone's ability and willingness to pay.
"If I take on debt, I am receiving the real savings of someone else."
Indeed? Then if I borrow $1000 from the bank, I am in receipt of real savings? If I promise to pay someone to spit at me, I am in receipt of real savings?
"the savings are not LIQUID. The savings are in the form of the actual product."
OK, let us suppose that I do, in fact, receive something which might be described as real savings (even though my bank manager might be less than impressed if I offer him my Walmart goods as collateral). Then what does that have to do with the source of my finance?
If I buy a house with fractional reserve notes, does that make those notes any more legitimate? The house can be regarded as a form of illiquid saving, but it has been purchased with a debt-instrument that is NOT backed by real savings. It is not a matter of what I spend the money on, but of where I got the money from. Did I get my payment out of real savings? I did not. I got it by conjuring up a debt-instrument out of thin air.
"The $10 was saved by Walmart."
Suppose I buy something from a company under your deferred payment arrangement. In exchange for a good, the company is accepting my IOU. That IOU is not backed by anything but my promise to pay. Under normal conditions I expect to be able to honor it. But if I lose my job, or if I have taken on too much debt, then I might not keep my promise.
Now suppose that I pay for the good with a banknote drawn on a fractional reserve bank. Under normal conditions it expects to be able to honor it. But if there is a bank run, then it might not keep its promise.
In both cases, the means of payment is an IOU which is not backed 100% by gold but by the expectation of future income.
"A fractional reserve bank lies about how much gold it owns."
Very well then, let's change the banknote for a promissory note, or even an interest-bearing banknote, redeemable in the future. That's even more similar to my own IOU, which also falls due in the future.
Money consists in whatever is commonly accepted as payment. If a large proportion of companies operate in the way that you suggest, then the effect will be inflationary, since if they had to accept cash instead, then the transaction would take place at a reduced price or possibly not at all.
Actually, credit granted on consumer goods is not too big a deal. It would get serious if factories started selling stuff to merchants on installments, and then the merchants' IOUs (i.e. bills of exchange) were themselves negotiable instruments and used as money substitutes. A discounted bill of exchange was the preferred medium of exchange for free merchants centuries ago. In Amsterdam whole trading bubbles were financed by chains of bill of exchange. If that is the future direction of credit, if history is destined to repeat iself, then 100% reserves in banks will not be enough to stop credit expansion and its consequences.