This also raises an important question for Ego. Ego, what happens if
someone has a dispute with your default court itself? What, if
any, third-party arbiter can he and the default court turn to in order
to resolve their dispute? Is the default court the final arbiter of
last resort, in which case there is no third-party arbiter to whom they
can turn and the default court will have to decide its own case (in
which it can't possibly be impartial)? Or can they turn to one of the
other competing service providers? But if they can do this, what if
they can't agree on a third-party arbiter for their dispute? Who can
they turn to? Surely not the default court for it is a party to the
dispute and we've already noted a problem with it deciding its own
case. But if not the default court, then it looks like we've back to
the alleged problem you see with a polycentric legal system. The only
difference is that the alleged problem has been pushed back a step, but
you've added an organization that actively violates rights as a matter
of institutional policy, not to speak of all the other problems we've
noted with it being a monopolist.
What happens when an individual has a problem with a ruling under your system? Even Rothbard stuttered on that one:
No society
can have unlimited judicial appeals, for in that case there would
be no point to having judges or courts at all. Therefore, every
society, whether statist or anarchist, will have to have some socially
accepted cutoff point for trials and appeals
"Socially accepted"? 
Your anger at me implies that you think my system somehow violates the free decisions of individuals. It doesn't violate a single free decision. If you can name one free decision that it violates, I'll change my mind. My system only kicks in when individuals are unable to come to a free decision (and you stated that would rarely happen, so I don't see what your fuss is about!).
What is being proposed as an alternative to your statist, monopolistic
model is that the total lack of the initiation of force or coercion,
while you continually propose a singular institution with the exclusive
right to initiate force or coercion - I.E. a state.
Under your system, there is no lack of force or coercion. While I propose a fallback court, Geoffrey proposes vigilantism:
Or no court at all. You do know the difference between
vigilantism and
one party forcing the other into court, don't you?
If the fallback court is a violation of rights (and I don't think it is), vigilantism certainly is a violation of rights.
The actual legal system I am proposing does
not institutionalize rights-violations; yours does. That makes yours
not simply unfair but unjust
(and this is leaving aside other arguments I've made against systems
such as yours).
Does a system of leftist-anarchy
not "institutionalize"
rights
violations just because they don't have a single organization called
"the
state"? Does that mean that it's only "unfair", not "unjust"? It
doesn't matter whether you have something called "the state", a
violation of rights is a violation of rights.
Don't allow leftists to play games with definitions! Some of the
libertarian-leaning leftists at this forum will try to redefine
"left-wing" back to its original defition (Third Estate, limited
government, free-markets, laissez-faire reforms, etc.). Fine! We
non-leftists can't stop them from using their own personal definitions;
they can use whatever labels they want to describe any concept they
want.
However, they have the audacity
to then use their personal definition of "left-wing" (remember, the original
definition, which is no longer valid) to prove that modern leftists are
more libertarian than modern rightists! They will say that
libertarianism is "inherently leftist" (again, using the original, no
longer valid definition), and use that to insist that we should prefer
and side with modern leftists over modern rightists.
Question their motives.