I've often heard that recessions are deflationary by definition, but I'm struggling to understand the mechanics of this. If there is no monetary contraction, why would prices fall? Is the argument basically that velocity is entirely responsible for the fall in prices? If so, what triggers or is the driving force behind this lackluster velocity?
They are not deflationary by nature. In fact, you can actually have stagflation, where you have price increases combined with non existant growth.
For a true deflation to take place, the Federal Reserve would have to begin calling in the money supply and that won't happen.
Recession is solely the result of malinvestment and is not tied to deflation
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