Climate Change and Getting Out of the Way

Published Fri, Mar 21 2008 7:06 PM

[Cross-posted on the parent blog

Imagine for a moment that you are Abdul, a Bangladeshi rice farmer. You have farmed rice your entire adult life, and you plan to continue into the foreseeable future. Unfortunately, Bangladesh is an extremely low-lying nation; almost all of the country's land lies below 10m above sea level, and your farm is no exception. As global temperatures rise and progressively less ice covers the Earth's surface, the sea level will predictably rise slowly over the next century.

Fortunately, Bangladesh already has a system of dykes, originally built to withstand storm surges in harsh weather, which can be bolstered to hold back the rising ocean. Your land will likely avoid becoming permanently submerged. But as sea water mixes with the water table, your rice crops could end up unable to survive the increase in salinity.

Now let's say that we were able to satisfactorily trace the rising sea levels to global climate change, and were able to trace the changes in salinity directly to the rise in sea level, so that we knew that the impacts on your land were the result of climate change. Would there be any injustice here, and if so, what kind of injustice would it be?

On one hand, it does seem like you could reasonably object to any damage directly caused by the increase in sality. Clearly we would have a problem with a group of people directly dumping a bunch of salt on your land and killing your rice crop. It seems that the problem would persist if, using underground piping, they pumped salty water into the water table under your land, even if they never left their own property. I don't see why the injustice would disappear if, using a giant oceanic turbine, the individuals propelled ocean water towards the Bangladeshi dike system, resulting in the salinization of your land. If this would be a problem, then it seems odd to say that there would be no wrong done if, using a giant furnace, the individuals melted away Arctic ice until the sea level rose, sending ocean water into your water table. Finally, then, it seems odd to think that it would be acceptable if the group of individuals released a gas into the atmosphere which would predictably result in ice melting and sea level rise, which would in turn result in ocean water entering your water table. Accordingly, it seems that if we could establish a causal link between the emitters' actions and the salinization of your land, then you would be entitled to compensation.

An important question, though, is what exactly you should be compensated for. For example, what if there were a salt-resistant variety of rice that you could use instead of the kind you had been using? Or what if you could sell your land to prawn farmers, for whom the saltier conditions were ideal? Would these alternatives lessen the injustice done to you? As Nozick writes in Anarchy, State, and Utopia, "Does the compensation to X for Y's actions take into account X's best response to these actions, or not? If X responded by rearranging his other activities and assets to limit his losses (or if he made prior provision to limit them), should this benefit Y by lessening the compensation he must pay? Alternatively, if X makes no attempt to rearrange his activities to cope with what Y has done, must Y compensate X for the full damage X suffers?" Nozick doesn't provide an answer, but it's clear that this is a question that will need to be dealt with in any conversation like this one.

Do we have an obligation to "get out of the way" of damage? Do boundary crossers have an obligation to compensate us for the inconvenience of getting out of the way, and any residual damage? Or do boundary crossers have an obligation to compensate us for the damage that would have occurred if we didn't get out of the way, regardless of what we do? This is no trivial matter. Let's say that you anticipated the sea level rise, and purchased salt-resistant rice in order to be ready. If the salt-resistant rice worked as advertised, and you could continue to farm your rice, would that be the end of the discussion? Could the emitters simply say that you adapted, and therefore they were freed from responsibility? It seems clear to me that you could still reasonably demand compensation for the inconvenience of having to switch crop varieties. And if the genetically modified rice were more expensive, or more difficult to farm, I think you could fairly demand compensation for those things as well.

But would that be the end of it? I think that on some level, this is reasonable. I could see how someone might take the alternative view, and say that you were entitled to compensation for the damage that would have occurred in the absence of adaptive behavior, and that your adaptation should benefit you, and not the boundary crosser. However, I think that perhaps we might placate the holder of this view by conceding that perhaps you are not obligated to adapt, and if you don't, you might be entitled to compensation for the damage that is done, even if you could have prevented it. This too will be objectionable, but it at least offers a starting point for debate.

There is another reason we might want to say that you should only be entitled to compensation for the inconvenience of adapting and for any residual damage: such a policy would be more efficient. Efficiency is certainly not an overriding concern in matters of justice, but that doesn't mean it is unimportant. By compensating for the inconvenience of adaptation and any residual damage, the boundary crosser would be paying for all of the actual external costs produced by her actions. Making her pay for damages which never actualize would seem to mean that we would be, in a sense, "overcharging." For boundary crossings that we don't think are worthy of prohibition, we would effectively rule out an entire class of actually net beneficial actions which, if adaptive measures were not taken, would not be net beneficial.

In the preceding discussion, however, we have implied that by switching to salt-resistant rice, you avoided more costs than you incurred during the switch. In other words, we have assumed that in the absence of compensation, it was profitable for you to switch. Given the fact that in our story you switched, it seems pretty clear that you believed it would be profitable to do so. But what if you were wrong? What if the salt-resistant rice was not a worthwhile investment? Could you reasonably demand compensation for the additional costs produced by your bad decision? On one hand, it seems like you should be held responsible, since it was your choice to try the salt-resistant rice. But on the other hand, it seems like the only reason you bought the salt-resistant rice in the first place was because you knew your land was going to be, essentially, "invaded" by salt "sent" by the emitters. I'm not completely sure what to say about this.

So where do we stand? It seems like we can legitimately say that you have reason to object to the salinization of your land, and that if you could demonstrate a causal link, you could reasonably demand compensation from those responsible. But from there, things get a little less clear. I think I'm comfortable with the idea that you are entitled to compensation for the costs of adaptation, and for any residual damage. I'm less comfortable with the idea that someone should be responsible for "adaptation" costs that actually increased the total costs of the incident (we might make the case that such behavior isn't even properly considered "adaptive"). So I guess I've arrived somewhat short of a firm conclusion. But I hope this will be a good starting point for future discussion.

Comments

# Attackdonkey said on Monday, March 24, 2008 1:25 AM

trace rising sea levels to the global climate change....

but so what? I don't think anyone can give trace the global climate change to anything we have done?

I don't know if you are familiar but... www.junkscience.com

sorry I wasn't able to read any more I'll read it later.

# G8R HED said on Monday, March 24, 2008 1:51 PM

'Climate' is never static so how can one blame 'climate change' for misfortune?

Does 'causal link' in regards to 'climate change' mean that in the absence of human activity 'climate' would not change?

What if an earthqake caused the rice farmer's land to rise and he could no longer flood his property for growing rice without establishing an intricate and expensive network of terraces and levies? Does that mean a 'causal link' could be established between the weight of skyscrapers in New York City and 'global upheaval'?

# Donny with an A said on Monday, March 24, 2008 8:28 PM

Attackdonkey, while I have plenty of respect for Steve Milloy and his work in other areas, my familiarity with the relevant scientific research in this area makes me comfortable saying that if Milloy outright denies that anthropogenic climate change is happening, then he is misrepresenting the state of the science.  That's not to suggest that no skepticism is warranted, but denial is simply not a feasible stance at this point.  If Milloy doesn't make such a claim, then I apologize for the suggestion.  Is there anything in particular that you had in mind?  I really don't have time to read all of the articles on the site.

G8r hed, my argument is not put in jeopardy by the possibility that we could not establish the causal link necessary to establish guilt.  As far as I am aware, we have precisely no reason to believe that the weight of sky scrapers in Manhattan could be responsible for an earthquake in Bangladesh.  We surely have more reason to believe that human emissions of CO2 (among other anthropogenic climate forcings) could cause the ice caps to melt, even if we cannot be certain.  

However, if we did establish a causal link between the weight of skyscrapers in Manhattan, then (ignoring a defense of unknowability, which wouldn't apply to contributors to climate change) I don't see why we would be wrong to hold them responsible for the damage caused by the builders' actions.

# G8R HED said on Wednesday, March 26, 2008 8:20 AM

Your argument is put in jeopardy because anthropologic global warming is an empirically-mastered delirium of smoke.

It could be equally as likely to empirically-master that skyscrapers cause earthquakes. It is probably more likely that removing the insulating layer of oil from the earth's crust will cause the oceans to boil and we will all be steamed to death like a Bar Harbor lobster bake.

Get a GRIP man!

# Donny with an A said on Wednesday, March 26, 2008 3:50 PM

G8r hed, I'm not sure exactly what you're talking about.  Empirical-mastering isn't a term I've ever heard of, and I'm not sure how "likelihood" factors into the equation.  But given that you clearly have made no attempt whatsoever to study the mainstream case, I'm not sure that it would be worth my time to argue with you.

I'd recommend getting a grip yourself.  You clearly don't have the expertise necessary to be taken seriously while acting like you are.  Of course, if you had that expertise, you wouldn't be acting that way.

# G8R HED said on Friday, March 28, 2008 8:35 AM

I wasn't aware that a person must have expertise to claim relief from scientific speculation.

Today's manufactured 'causal links' between global warming and human activity are as flimsy as creating causal links between skyscrapers and earthquakes.

Computer analysis of empirical information may be as skewed as any theorist desires to make it. I only claim that an 'expert' could 'empirically master'

theoretical cause that skyscrapers are a contributing fractor for earthquakes and call it 'evidence', 'proof', or a 'causal link'.

That manufactured 'causal link' could appear to be just as likely as today's empirically-created causal link between human activity and global warming.

You assert in your proposition:

"that we knew that the impacts on your land were the result of climate change."

It may indeed be that climate change caused the rice-farmer's demise. What authority lends credence to that climate change being linked to specific property-owners causing climate change?

Is there not reason to suspect both the authority and expertise that arrived at such a conclusion?  

What protection is there AGAINST such authority and expertise?

Which is more important: reparations to the rice farmer or the property rights of those who are claimed to have harmed him?

One other thing that seems to have gone unnoticed. To what degree is the rice farmer responsible for his own demise? IF your experts determine 'causal link' between human activity and global warming, to what degree must the rice farmer be held accountable for the past decades he has spent burning his rice stubble? Perhaps on a percentage of rice-stubble-burning-to-bushels-of-rice-produced?

What if, by 'causal-link' it is determined that modern practices of producing rice without burning as conducted by more technologically-advanced countries over the last few decades yielded more bushels-per-degree-of-pollution than that of the Bangladesh rice farmer?

Would it not seem evident, then, that the Bangladesh rice farmer owed reparations rather than deserving

a claim of harm?

# Donny with an A said on Friday, March 28, 2008 2:47 PM

I'm not sure how master equations are used in climate models, if that's even what you meant by "empirically mastered."  Could you explain how they're being used, and what's wrong with using them that way?

I accept that the question of the appropriate burden of proof in climate change matters is an open one.  I haven't given the subject enough in-depth thought to really comment.

You're right to point out that I assumed Abdul to have not contributed to his own problems.  If the court found Abdul to have contributed, the liability of other involved parties would be diminished by that amount.  I don't think that's a real problem for my argument.

And certainly if Abdul contributed to climate change, he would be accountable for part of the damage visited on others.  That wouldn't have any bearing on the case in question, but it does raise the question, discussed by Paul Baer in his essay, "Adaptation: Who Pays Whom?" of whether it would make more sense to calculate "net liability" rather than to try to settle each case individually.

# G8R HED said on Saturday, March 29, 2008 11:14 AM

There are as many mathmatical variations in climate models as there are theorists creating them. Even a cursory investigation into the prospect of anthropologic climate change reveals vast disparity in mathmatical probabilities assigned to climate variables.

NOAAA says, www.oar.noaa.gov/.../t_modeling.html, among other things,

"The accuracy of climate models is limited by grid resolution and our ability to describe the complicated atmospheric, oceanic, and chemical processes mathematically. Much of the research in OAR is directed at improving the representation of these processes. Despite some imperfections, models simulate remarkably well current climate and its variability. More capable supercomputers enable significant model improvements by allowing for more accurate representation of currently unresolved physics."

There is no denying the fact that modeling employs empirical assumptions based on what is currently regarded as 'knowledge' - whether correct or incorrect - and subject to the interpretation of the model-er.

The models, then, are simply 'best guess' scenarios of future weather patterns based on what the model-er perceives to be historical weather 'facts'.  What those 'facts' are changes almost daily. There is considerable doubt that carbon dioxide is even able to cause warming. http://nov55.com/crunch.html (just one of many I have come across).

What is wrong with using them this way? Nothing at all. Modelers can use their models any way they want....so long as such theoretical speculations are not used as legal grounds to appropriate persons or property. By that, I mean used in such a manner as to direct personal behavior or acquire others' property.

Science in the midst of such disparity as evidenced in the antropologic climate change debate is an illegitimate basis upon which to deny liberty - fraud by science.

Man is equipped to productively adapt to change.

The benefit of science is to enhance that productivity. Science as a means to procure reparations FROM productive society is simply another means of income redistribution.

You have no practical basis which suggests a rice farmer in Bangladesh on ground subject to flooding by salt water should not go out of business. It is likely that more modern methods of rice production on ground more suitable to that purpose yields far greater bushels of rice per measure of what may be (rightly or wrongly) construed to be climate-changing elements. Irregardless of that environmental perspective, the fact that there are more efficient means to supply more rice is the result of productive society and the proper function of economy.

The un-productive (it produces nothing) concept of 'net liability', then, could well be construed to the detriment of lesser developed methods of production. The poor Bangladesh rice farmer may end up owing a  'debt to society' he could never repay in the remainder of his productive lifetime.

This suggests that it is scientific testing of climate change theories that should get out of the way of productive society.

# Donny with an A said on Sunday, March 30, 2008 2:41 AM

Hmm...so there's a lot in there.  With regard to climate models, I addressed a lot of the difficulties in this post: libertarian-left.blogspot.com/.../do-you-believe-in-global-warming.html

That being said, I don't think that uncertainties in climate science somehow prove that we can't say that anthropogenic climate change is occurring, or that we would be misguided to try to quantify it, without resorting to mere subjective opining.  Certainly we won't be able to predict things perfectly, but no one's claiming that we can.  By your line of reasoning, we would have dismissed Kepler almost before he finished explaining his theory.

With regard to Gary Novak's article, I'm really awestruck that you would actually cite that as evidence.  Even the most cursory glance at how his claims relate to established scientific facts would demonstrate that he has precisely no idea what he's talking about.  For example, from his experience with night vision goggles, he deduces that only 1-5% of the Earth's energy budget can be accounted for by radiation.  However, this estimate lies in the face of not only our models of how the atmosphere works (www.nasa.gov/.../172159main_polar_radiation_budget_large.gif), but also our observations combined with a basic understanding of atmospheric chemistry (www.udel.edu/.../spectrum.jpg).  So perhaps you have better evidence than that.  But if you're honestly going to reject a well established view which is even accepted by most climate change skeptics on the basis of some armchair "science" done by someone who was admittedly unable to complete his graduate studies in yeast physiology because of apparent emotional problems, I'd suggest you ask yourself if you're not just trying to find a reason to reject the climate change hypothesis rather than actually evaluating the arguments on their merit.

The rest of your post doesn't really make much sense to me, so I'm not sure how to respond.  You seem to suggest that in fact, the Bangladeshi farmer is not being harmed, which is stated to not be the case in the example.  If you find the example implausible, I'm sure it would be possible to come up with some example that would involve harm.  Thought experiments are wonderfully flexible.

Another part of what you said is that if we held contributors to climate change accountable for all the harms their actions caused, then the Bangladeshi farmer would end up owing more than he received.  If the share of the total harm done corresponding to the harm visited on him was larger than his share of responsibility for causing climate change, then this would not be true.  And if he experienced less harm, then I don't see any problem with him ending up owing money.  

That is, if Abdul caused 2% of climate change (obviously a ridiculous number), but 3% of all the damage done by climate change was done to him, then he would end up being compensated.  If only 1% of the damage was done to him, and he contributed 2% to the phenomenon, then he would have to pay.  Far from being a problem with my argument, I see that as a strength.  The fact that Abdul is poor has nothing to do with it.  As a libertarian, I'm surprised that you would suggest otherwise.